How do you find dydx by implicit differentiation of tan(x+y)=x and evaluate at point (0,0)?

2 Answers
Jan 26, 2018

dydx=1sec2(x+y)sec2(x+y)

At (0,0), dydx=0

Explanation:

When doing implicit differentiation, you follow these essential steps:

  1. Take the derivative of both sides of the equation with respect to x.
  2. Differentiate terms with x as normal.
  3. Differentiate terms with y as normal too but tag on a dydx to the end.
  4. Solve for the dydx.

So, let's differentiate both sides:

ddx[tan(x+y)]=ddx[x]

The right hand side just comes out as 1, but the left hand side will require that we use a chain rule. This goes as:

ddx[tan(x+y)]ddx[x+y]

This comes out to:

sec2(x+y)(1+dydx)

Putting this back in the whole equation:

sec2(x+y)+sec2(x+y)dydx=1

Now, you just solve for dydx using some basic algebra:

dydx=1sec2(x+y)sec2(x+y)

Now, you're given the point (0,0) to evaluate the derivative at. All you do is plug this in:

dydx=1sec2(0)sec2(0)

sec(0) is simply 1cos(0). Since cos(0) = 1, sec(0) is also 1. So, wherever we see sec(0), we just plug in 1:

dydx=111=0

So your tangent line would have a slope of 0 at the point (0,0).

If you want more help in implicit differentiation, check out my video:

Hope that helped :)

Jan 26, 2018

dydx=cos2(x+y)1
Evaluating at (0,0) gives dydx=0

Explanation:

Implicit differentiation is just differentiation using chain rule.

dtan(x+y)d(x+y)×d(x+y)dx=dxdx
sec2(x+y)×(1+dydx)=1

Rearranging:

1+dydx=cos2(x+y)
dydx=cos2(x+y)1

Substituting (0,0) in above equation,
we get:
dydx=cos2(0)1
i.e dydx=0