How do you find the positive values of p for which #Sigma (1/n(lnn)^p)# from #[2,oo)# converges?

1 Answer
Aug 1, 2017

The series:

#sum_(n=2)^oo (lnn)^p/n#

is convergent for #p <= -1#

Explanation:

Consider the function:

#f(x) = (lnx)^p/x > 0# for #x in [2,oo)#

For #p < 0# we have:

#lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^p/x = lim_(x->oo) 1/(x(lnx)^absp) = 0#

While for #p > 0# the limit:

#lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^p/x#

is in the indeterminate form #oo/oo# so we can solve it using l'Hospital's rule:

#(1) lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^p/x = lim_(x->oo) (d/dx(lnx)^p)/(d/dx x) = lim_(x->oo) (p(lnx)^(p-1))/x#

For #p in NN# we can then prove by induction that:

#lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^p/x = 0#

since this is true for #p=0#, and #(1)# shows that if the limit is zero for #(p-1)# then it is zero also for #p#.

For any other #p > 0# we can see that if # m < p < n# with #m,n in NN^0#, we have either that:

# (lnx)^m/x < (lnx)^p/x < (lnx)^n/x#

or that:

# (lnx)^n/x < (lnx)^p/x < (lnx)^m/x#

In both cases by the squeeze theorem:

#lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^p/x = 0#

which then is true for any #p in RR#

Now consider the derivative:

#(df)/dx = (p(lnx)^(p-1)-(lnx)^p)/x^2 = (lnx)^(p-1)/x^2(p-lnx)#

we have that for #x > e^p#

#(df)/dx < 0#

so that the function is decreasing over the interval #(e^p,oo)#

All the hypotheses of the integral test are then satisfied and the convergence of the series:

#sum_(n=2)^oo (lnn)^p/n#

is equivalent to the convergence of the integral:

#int_2^oo (lnx)^p/x dx = int_2^oo (lnx)^p d(lnx) = [(lnx)^(p+1)/(p+1)]_2^oo#

Clearly the integral is convergent only if:

#lim_(x->oo) (lnx)^(p+1) < oo#

that is for #p <= -1#.