How do you prove #tan^2x/(Secx+1)+1 = secx#?
For reasons explained in the video below, it turns out that:
Now, due to the FOIL rule (first, outer, inner, last)...
All of the information above combined ultimately means that...
*You can now get rid of (secx+1) at the top and bottom of the fraction. When the numerator and denominator of a fraction are both the same, providing they aren't both zeros, what you get is 1.
And here is your proof.