Which of the following is correct passive voice of 'I know him well'? a) He is well known by me. b) He is well known to me. c) He is known well by me. d) He is known well to me. e) He is known by me well. f) He is known to me well.
No, it is not your permutation and combination of math.
Many grammarians say English grammar is 80% math but 20% arts.
I believe it.
Of course, it has a simple form too.
But we must keep in our mind the exception things like
PUT enunciation and BUT enunciation IS NOT THE SAME!
Though the spelling is SAME, it is an exception, so far I know no grammarians answer here, why? Like this and that many have by different ways.
He is well know by me, it is a common construction.
well is an adverb, rule is, put between auxiliary ( copulative verbs by the USA term) and main verb.
Even, accordingly Wren and Martin an old model English grammar book which is very much popular in India subcontinent for Billion people, says He is well known me, I mean agent "by" is not essential as we know the construction is PASSIVE.
He is well know to me --is possible too.