Why is a point, b, an extremum of a function if #f'(b)=0#?

1 Answer
Nov 7, 2015

A point at which the derivative is #0# is not always the location of an extremum.

Explanation:

#f(x)=(x-1)^3 = x^3-3x^2+3x-1#

has #f'(x) = 3(x-1)^2 = 3x^2-6x+3#,

so that #f'(1)=0#.

But #f(1)# is not an extremum.

It is also NOT true that every extremum occurs where #f'(x)=0#
For example, both #f(x) = absx# and #g(x)=root3(x^2)# have minima at #x=0#, where their derivatives do not exist.

It IS true that if #f(c)# is a local extremum, then either #f'(c)=0# or #f'(c)# does not exist.