How do you prove: #cos (x)/(1+sin (x)) + (1+sin (x))/cos (x) = 2 sec (x)#?

2 Answers
Apr 15, 2015

Let's take the first member:

#cos (x)/(1+sin (x)) + (1+sin (x))/cos (x)=(cos^2x+(1+sinx)^2)/((1+sinx)cosx)=#

#=(cos^2x+1+2sinx+sin^2x)/((1+sinx)cosx)=(2+2sinx)/((1+sinx)cosx)=#

#=(2(1+sinx))/((1+sinx)cosx)=2/cosx=2secx#.

(Remember that: #sin^2x+cos^2x=1#).

Apr 15, 2015

First of all, the equality is possible only if #1+sin(x)!=0# and #cos(x)!=0#.
The corresponding conditions on an angle #x#, that we assume prior to proving the equality, are:
#x!=pi/2+pi*n#

Let's try to simplify it in straight forward fashion.

First, bring the left part to a common denominator:
#{cos^2(x)+[1+sin(x)]^2}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}#

Transform the numerator, leave the denominator:
#{cos^2(x)+1+2sin(x)+sin^2(x)}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}#

Recall that #sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1# for any #x#.
Therefore, our expression looks like
#{2+2sin(x)}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}={2[1+sin(x)]}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}#

We can safely reduce the last fraction by #1+sin(x)# (recall, we assumed that #x!=pi/2+pi*n# and, consequently, #1+sin(x)!=0#) getting, using the definition of a function #sec(x)#,
#2/cos(x)=2sec(x)#