How do you prove: cos (x)/(1+sin (x)) + (1+sin (x))/cos (x) = 2 sec (x)?

2 Answers
Apr 15, 2015

Let's take the first member:

cos (x)/(1+sin (x)) + (1+sin (x))/cos (x)=(cos^2x+(1+sinx)^2)/((1+sinx)cosx)=

=(cos^2x+1+2sinx+sin^2x)/((1+sinx)cosx)=(2+2sinx)/((1+sinx)cosx)=

=(2(1+sinx))/((1+sinx)cosx)=2/cosx=2secx.

(Remember that: sin^2x+cos^2x=1).

Apr 15, 2015

First of all, the equality is possible only if 1+sin(x)!=0 and cos(x)!=0.
The corresponding conditions on an angle x, that we assume prior to proving the equality, are:
x!=pi/2+pi*n

Let's try to simplify it in straight forward fashion.

First, bring the left part to a common denominator:
{cos^2(x)+[1+sin(x)]^2}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}

Transform the numerator, leave the denominator:
{cos^2(x)+1+2sin(x)+sin^2(x)}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}

Recall that sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1 for any x.
Therefore, our expression looks like
{2+2sin(x)}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}={2[1+sin(x)]}/{[1+sin(x)]*cos(x)}

We can safely reduce the last fraction by 1+sin(x) (recall, we assumed that x!=pi/2+pi*n and, consequently, 1+sin(x)!=0) getting, using the definition of a function sec(x),
2/cos(x)=2sec(x)