How do you prove #sec^2((pi/2)-x)-1=cot^2x#?

1 Answer
Nov 21, 2015

We will be using the following properties:

  1. #sec(x) = 1/cos(x)# (definition of secant)
  2. #cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)# (definition of cotangent)
  3. #cos(-x) = cos(x)# (cosine is even)
  4. #cos(x - pi/2) = sin(x)#
  5. #sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1#

By 1, we have

#sec^2(pi/2-x)-1 = 1/(cos^2(pi/2-x))-1#

By 3 and 4,

#cos^2(pi/2-x) = cos^2(-(x - pi/2)) = cos^2(x-pi/2) = sin^2(x)#

#=> 1/(cos^2(pi/2-x))-1 = 1/sin^2(x)-1#

By 5,

#1/sin^2(x) = (sin^2(x) + cos^2(x))/sin^2(x) = sin^2(x)/sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)/sin^2(x)#

Thus, by 2,

#1/sin^2(x) = 1 + cot^2(x)#

Substituting back then gives us

# 1/(cos^2(pi/2-x))-1 = (1 + cot^2(x))-1#

#:. sec^2(pi/2-x)-1 = cot^2(x) " Q.E.D."#