How do you find the inverse of f(x)=x2 and is it a function?

1 Answer
Jun 15, 2016

Yes, the original formula defines a function, it has an inverse, and the inverse is a function. The inverse function can be written as f1(x)=x2+2.

Explanation:

The formula y=f(x)=x2 definitely defines a function (for each x, you get one output f(x) that is the positive square root of x2...the graph passes the vertical line test). Its domain is the set of all x such that x2 and its range is the set of all y such that y0.

Moreover, the function passes the horizontal line test and you can solve for x in the equation y=f(x)=x2 to find the inverse function: y=x2y2=x2x=y2+2.

It is technically find to write the inverse function as x=f1(y)=y2+2. However, for the purposes of graphing both functions in the same picture and seeing the reflection property across the line y=x, you can now swap the variables and write y=f1(x)=x2+2. (If the variables represent specific real-life quantities, you should not do this swapping).

You should only graph y=f1(x)=x2+2 for x0 (restrict the domain) since the set of all non-negative real numbers was the range of the original function. The range of the inverse function is the set of all y such that y2.

This half-parabola is definitely a function and definitely passes the vertical line test (on the restricted domain) because the original function passed the horizontal line test.

Also note that:

(ff1)(x)=f(f1(x))=f(x2+2)=x2+22=x2=|x|=x for x0 and

(f1f)(x)=f1(f(x))=f1(x2)=(x2)2+2=x2+2=x for all x2.