How do you solve for #x# in #1/x=1/y+1/z#?

3 Answers
Aug 8, 2016

Put on a common denominator:

#(yz)/(xyz) = (xz)/(xyz) + (xy)/(xyz)#

Now that we're on equivalent denominators we can eliminate and just work with the numerators.

#yz = xz + xy#

Factor out an x:

#yz = x(z + y)#

#(yz)/(z + y) = x#

Hopefully this helps!

Aug 8, 2016

#x = (yz)/(z+y)#

Explanation:

The biggest problem is that #x# is in the denominator. The fraction cannot be inverted, because there are 2 terms on the right hand side. If the two fractions are added to give one term, then we can Invert both sides.

#1/x = 1/y+ 1/z#

#1/x = (z + y)/(yz)#

#x = (yz)/(z+y)#

OR:

We can get rid of the denominators altogether by multiplying each term by the LCM of the denominators.

#(color(red)(xyz)xx1)/x = (color(red)(xyz)xx1)/y+ (color(red)(xyz)xx1)/z#

#(cancelxyzxx1)/cancelx = (xcancelyzxx1)/cancely+ (xycancelzxx1)/cancelz#

#yz = xz + xy" factorise x"#

#yz = x(z+y)#

#x = (yz)/(y+z)#

Aug 8, 2016

Although not the neatest approach, we can take the reciprocal of both sides from the get-go:

#x=1/(1/y+1/z)#

Multiply the fraction by #(yz)/(yz)#:

#x=1/(1/y+1/z)*((yz)/(yz))=(yz)/(yz(1/y+1/z))=(yz)/(z+y)=(yz)/(y+z)#