Question #5b4da

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Question #5b4da

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Answer 1 · 2017-04-12T05:20:46

$0$ $0$

Explanation:

Remember that $cot (θ) = \frac{1}{tan (θ)}$ $cot(theta)=1/tan(theta)$ .

Then, $cot (90^{\circ}) = \frac{1}{tan (90^{\circ})}$ $cot(90^@)=1/tan(90^@)$ . Recall that $tan (90^{\circ}) = \infty$ $tan(90^@)=oo$ . Then, $cot (90^{\circ}) = \frac{1}{tan (90^{\circ})} = \frac{1}{\infty} = 0$ $cot(90^@)=1/tan(90^@)=1/oo=0$ .

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