Why does a balloon of #2*L# volume contain TWICE as many gaseous particles as a balloon of #1*L# volume under equivalent conditions of pressure and temperature?

1 Answer
anor277
Apr 21, 2017

Would you not expect this outcome?

Explanation:

And this relationship was experimentally confirmed by Amadeo Avogadro. The volume occupied by a gas is directly proportional to the number of gaseous molecules present in the container:

#V_1/n_1=V_2/n_2#, where #n# is the number of gaseous particles.

Historically, this gas law was important because it led to the idea of molar equivalence, and #"Avogadro's number."#

Certainly, this is the behaviour we observe when we blow up a balloon.

Related questions
See all questions in Avogadro's Law
Impact of this question
1905 views around the world
You can reuse this answer
Creative Commons License