# Question #006e9

Aug 27, 2017

$1 \frac{1}{4}$ $\text{cups}$

#### Explanation:

Because if you turn $\frac{1}{2}$ cups into the same denominator as $\frac{3}{4}$ cups, then the question becomes

$\frac{3}{4} \text{cups" + 2/4 "cups" = 5/4 "cups}$

Now, to further simplify that answer, you'll have to divide the numerator $5$ by the denominator $4$. You can only use this method if the numerator is bigger than the denominator.

You divide $5$ by $4$ you would have $1$ and a remainder of $1$ the first $1$ is one whole and the second one is one-quarter. In numbers, it would look like $1$ whole and $\frac{1}{4}$ which is

$1 \frac{1}{4}$ $\text{cups}$

Hope you understand! :)