How do you find MacLaurin's Formula for #f(x)=cosx# and use it to approximate #f(1/2)# within 0.01?

1 Answer
Apr 27, 2018

#cos(1/2) ~~ 0.8776#

Explanation:

Recall that

#cosx = 1 - x^2/(2!) + x^4/(4!) - x^6/(6!) + ...#

Now we use the lagrange error to find how many terms we need to make the approximation within #0.01#.

#0.01 = 1/100#

We need

#M/((n+ 1)!)x^(n + 1)#

Since the maximum, #M#, will always be #1# for cosine and sine, we needn't consider it.

#1/((n + 1)!)x^(n + 1) < 1/100#

Since #x = 1/2# in our case,

#1/((n + 1)!)(1/2)^(n + 1) < 1/100#

The only thing we can do is guess and check with various values of #n#. When #n = 2#, we get:

#1/(3!)(1/2)^3 = 1/48#

But since this isn't less than #1/100#, this isn't acceptable. However, with #n = 3#, we get

#1/(4!) (1/2)^4 = 1/384#

Since our degree can't be lower than three, it's going to have to be four. Thus

#cos(1/2) = 1 - (1/2)^2/(2!) + (1/2)^4/(4!) = 0.8776#

Using a calculator, we get

#cos(1/2) ~~ 0.8776#

So our approximation clearly agrees to at least #0.01#!

Hopefully this helps!