The velocity of an object with a mass of #3 kg# is given by #v(t)= sin 2 t + cos 4 t #. What is the impulse applied to the object at #t= pi /4 #?
There is no impulse at that time.
Evaluating that at time
Since the acceleration is zero, the force applied to this object is zero.
Now impulse. Impulse is
So "impulse" would not really apply to this situation even if the force had not calculated out to be zero.
I hope this helps,