Question

Question #7e22e

Answer 1

Yes, because it measures the change of velocity with time:

Explanation:

Because acceleration is a way to measure the change of velocity with time.
So, velocity is measured in `m/s` and its change with time will be: `(m/s)/s`
Rearranging it you get: `m/s*1/s=m/s^2`.

As an example of the rate of change of velocity consider the following:
You can have a Fiat Panda and a Ferrari; both are able to reach a velocity of `100(km)/h` so...why it is better to have a Ferrari? Because despite the fact of reaching the same velocity of a Fiat Panda the Ferrari does it in a smaller time (or, a better `"velocity"/"time"` ratio)!
Let say, the Ferrari takes `2sec` to reach `100(km)/h` while the Fiat Panda (probably) `3 "minutes"` (thowing it from a cliff!)!

Hope it helps!