Question #c57c0

1 Answer
Mar 5, 2016

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

Force #F=mcdot a#
Where #m# is the mass and #a# its acceleration of the object.
Also Kinetic Energy #KE=1/2mv^2#
Given that #F prop 1/v#
We know that acceleration #a# is #-=(dv)/dt#
#:.# one of the #v# in the expression for Kinetic energy can be written as
#KE=1/2mv^2propm(a.t).v#
Since the factor #1/2# is a constant, it has been absorbed in the propotionality. Rearranging

#KEprop(m.a).(t.v)#

Substituting for force and its given inverse proportionality we get
#KEprop1/(cancel v).(t. cancel v)#
#KEprop t#

#t# is time

Does this help?