Question

Question #c57c0

Answer 1

Yes.

Explanation:

Force `F=mcdot a`
Where `m` is the mass and `a` its acceleration of the object.
Also Kinetic Energy `KE=1/2mv^2`
Given that `F prop 1/v`
We know that acceleration `a` is `-=(dv)/dt`
`:.` one of the `v` in the expression for Kinetic energy can be written as
`KE=1/2mv^2propm(a.t).v`
Since the factor `1/2` is a constant, it has been absorbed in the propotionality. Rearranging

`KEprop(m.a).(t.v)`

Substituting for force and its given inverse proportionality we get
`KEprop1/(cancel v).(t. cancel v)`
`KEprop t`

`t` is time

Does this help?