# Question #7e22e

Aug 1, 2016

Yes, because it measures the change of velocity with time:

#### Explanation:

Because acceleration is a way to measure the change of velocity with time.
So, velocity is measured in $\frac{m}{s}$ and its change with time will be: $\frac{\frac{m}{s}}{s}$
Rearranging it you get: $\frac{m}{s} \cdot \frac{1}{s} = \frac{m}{s} ^ 2$.

As an example of the rate of change of velocity consider the following:
You can have a Fiat Panda and a Ferrari; both are able to reach a velocity of $100 \frac{k m}{h}$ so...why it is better to have a Ferrari? Because despite the fact of reaching the same velocity of a Fiat Panda the Ferrari does it in a smaller time (or, a better $\text{velocity"/"time}$ ratio)!
Let say, the Ferrari takes $2 \sec$ to reach $100 \frac{k m}{h}$ while the Fiat Panda (probably) $3 \text{minutes}$ (thowing it from a cliff!)!

Hope it helps!