How do you express #cos( (3 pi)/ 2 ) * cos (( 5 pi) /4 ) # without using products of trigonometric functions?

2 Answers
Feb 26, 2016

0

Explanation:

From knowledge of the graph of cosx , we know that

#cos((3pi)/2) = 0#

and #cos((5pi)/4) = -cos(pi/4) = -1/sqrt2 #

#rArr cos((3pi)/2) . cos((5pi)/4) = 0.(-1/sqrt2) = 0 #

Feb 26, 2016

It is equivalent to #0#.

Explanation:

To express #cos(3pi/2)*cos(5pi/4)#, without using trigonometric functions, we should first find value of #cos(3pi/2)# and #cos(5pi/4)# separately.

#cos(3pi/2)# is equal #cos((3pi)/2-2pi)# or #cos(-pi/2)#, which is equal to #cos(pi/2)#. But as latter is equal to zero,

#cos((3pi)/2)=0#

Although, #cos((5pi)/4)=cos(2pi-(5pi)/4)=cos((3pi)/4)=-cos(pi/4)=(-1/sqrt2)#

#cos(3pi/2)*cos(5pi/4)# will still be #0#, as #cos((3pi)/2)=0#