Is arctan(x) = cot(x) true?

1 Answer
Oct 23, 2015

No.

Explanation:

arctan(x) is the inverse function of tan(x), and it means that, if y=arctan(x), then y is a number such that tan(y)=x.

In general, f is the inverse function of g if f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x.

On the other hand, cot(x) simply is 1/tan(x), so it's simply the inverse number of tan(x).

So, you have that, as a function, arctan(x) is the inverse of tan(x), which means that composing the two functions results in the identity function. In formulas,

artan(tan(x))=tan(arctan(x)=x.

Instead, as a number (i.e. you must fix x), cot(x) is the inverse of tan(x), which means that multiplying the two numbers gives one as a result:

tan(x)cot(x)=1 for every x.