How do you find the solutions to #sin^-1x=tan^-1x#?

2 Answers
Aug 19, 2016

I got #x = 0#.

#arcsin(0) = 0#

#arctan(0) = 0#

#f(x) = arcsinx - arctanx#:
graph{arcsinx - arctanx [-3.08, 3.08, -1.54, 1.54]}


This is something where you can recall that #arcsinx# and #arctanx# are actually angles. Therefore, let us choose to subtract #arctanx# over, and take the #sin# of both sides.

#sin(arcsinx - arctanx) = sin0#

Then, we know that #sin(u-v) = sinucosv - cosusinv#. Therefore:

#=> sin(arcsinx)cos(arctanx) - cos(arcsinx)sin(arctanx) = sin0#

#xcos(arctanx) - cos(arcsinx)sin(arctanx) = 0#

Since #arctanx# is the angle opposite from the side of length #x# and adjacent to the side of length #1#:

#color(green)(cos(arctanx) = 1/(sqrt(1+x^2)))#

Next, #arcsinx# is the angle opposite to the side of length #x#, while the hypotenuse is of length #1#. That means:

#a^2 + x^2 = 1#

#a = sqrt(1 - x^2)#

That means:

#color(green)(cos(arcsinx)) = sqrt(1 - x^2)/1 = color(green)(sqrt(1 - x^2))#

Lastly, #sin(arctanx)# is the #sin# that uses the sides of length #x# (opposite) and #sqrt(1 + x^2)# (hypotenuse), so:

#color(green)(sin(arctanx) = x/(sqrt(1 + x^2)))#

So, we can substitute these results to get:

#x/(sqrt(1+x^2)) - (xsqrt(1 - x^2))/(sqrt(1 + x^2)) = 0#

#(x - xsqrt(1 - x^2))/(sqrt(1 + x^2)) = 0#

Now let's solve for #x#.

#x - xsqrt(1 - x^2) = 0#

#x = xsqrt(1 - x^2)#

#1 = sqrt(1 - x^2)#

#1 = 1 - x^2#

#x^2 = 0 => color(blue)(x = 0)#

This actually happens to be at the inflection point of #arcsinx# and #arctanx#, and these functions are odd functions, so there are no other solutions.

#f(x) = arcsinx - arctanx#:
graph{arcsinx - arctanx [-3.08, 3.08, -1.54, 1.54]}

Aug 20, 2016

First of all, notice that both #arcsin(x)# and #arctan(x)# are, by definition in the interval #[-pi/2,pi/2]#.

Apply function #tan# to our equation:
#tan(arcsin(x)) = tan(arctan(x)#

As we know,
#tan(phi)=sin(phi)/cos(phi)# by definition of function #tan()#.
#tan(arctan(x))=x# by definition of #arctan()#.
#sin(arcsin(x)) = x# by definition of #arcsin()#.

Therefore, our equation takes form

#sin(arcsin(x))/cos(arcsin(x)) = x#
#=> x/cos(arcsin(x)) = x#
Before reducing by #x# we have to check if #x=0# is a solution.
Indeed it is:
#arcsin(0) = 0# and #arctan(0) = 0#

So, we found one solution: #x=0#.

Now let's reduce our equation by #x#, which, supposedly, not equal to #0# since we already found this solution.

#=> 1/cos(arcsin(x)) = 1#
#=> cos(arcsin(x)) = 1#
#=> arcsin(x) = 0# since this is the only angle within #[-pi/2,pi/2]#, #cos# of which is #1#.

Apply function #sin# to both sides:
#sin(arcsin(x)) = sin(0)#
#=> x = 0# - a solution, which we have already found and checked.

So, #x=0# is the only solution.